Q:My friend's father bought an industrial plot jointly with his brother's wife. Brother's wife gave the GPA to her brother-in-law who sold the the property to a third party around 30 years ago but the property was not registered in favor of that party. Third party is no more there and the title stands in favor of my friend's dad and his brother's wife. My question is to whom does the property belong legally. The legal heirs of the third party are insisting on a transfer deed to be executed by my friend's dad. But he told that he has already given a sum of money for registration of the property and it was not used for registrations. Is he eligible for any compensation for that amount? Is it safe to transfer the title in favor of the legal heirs again?
